CDPSE Free Study Guide! with New Update 220 Exam Questions [Q33-Q56]

Q33. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of compromise when transferring personal information using email?

Centrally managed encryption

End user-managed encryption

Private cloud storage space

Password-protected .zip files

Explanation
Encryption is a security practice that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data, especially when they are transferred using email or other communication channels. Encryption ensures that only authorized parties can access and use the data, while unauthorized parties cannot decipher or modify the data without the key or algorithm.
Encryption also helps to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which require data controllers and processors to implement appropriate technical and organizational measures to safeguard personal data.
Centrally managed encryption is a type of encryption that is implemented and controlled by a central authority or system, such as an organization or a service provider. Centrally managed encryption has the following advantages over end user-managed encryption, private cloud storage space, or password-protected .zip files, for reducing the risk of compromise when transferring personal information using email:
It can enforce consistent and standardized encryption policies and procedures across the organization or the service, such as the encryption standards, algorithms, keys, modes, and formats.
It can automate the encryption and decryption processes for the users, without requiring them to perform any manual actions or install any software or plug-ins on their devices.
It can monitor and audit the encryption activities and incidents, and provide visibility and accountability for the data protection and compliance status.
It can reduce the human errors or negligence that may compromise the encryption security, such as losing or sharing the keys, forgetting or reusing the passwords, or sending the data to the wrong recipients.
References:
Encryption in the Hands of End Users – ISACA, section 2: “A key goal of encryption is to protect the file even when direct access is possible or the transfer is intercepted.” The Complexity Conundrum: Simplifying Data Security – ISACA, section 3: “Centrally managed encryption solutions can help enterprises overcome these challenges by providing a unified platform for encrypting data across different environments and applications.” Email Encryption: What You Need to Know – Lifewire, section 1: “Email encryption is a way of protecting your email messages from being read by anyone other than the intended recipients.”

Q34. Before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy, it is MOST important to ensure:

a training program is developed.

a privacy committee is established.

a distribution methodology is identified.

a legal review is conducted.

Q35. Which of the following deployed at an enterprise level will MOST effectively block malicious tracking of user Internet browsing?

Web application firewall (WAF)

Website URL blacklisting

Domain name system (DNS) sinkhole

Desktop antivirus software

Q36. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when an organization wants to store personal data in the cloud?

The organization’s potential legal liabilities related to the data

The data recovery capabilities of the storage provider

The data security policies and practices of the storage provider

Any vulnerabilities identified in the cloud system

Q37. Which of the following should an IT privacy practitioner review FIRST to understand where personal data is coming from and how it is used within the organization?

Data process flow diagrams

Data inventory

Data classification

Data collection standards

Q38. Which of the following helps to ensure the identities of individuals in a two-way communication are verified?

Virtual private network (VPN)

Secure Shell (SSH)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

Mutual certificate authentication

Explanation
The best answer is D. Mutual certificate authentication.
A comprehensive explanation is:
Mutual certificate authentication is a method of mutual authentication that uses public key certificates to verify the identities of both parties in a two-way communication. A public key certificate is a digital document that contains information about the identity of the certificate holder, such as their name, organization, domain name, etc., as well as their public key, which is used for encryption and digital signature. A public key certificate is issued and signed by a trusted authority, called a certificate authority (CA), that vouches for the validity of the certificate.
Mutual certificate authentication works as follows:
* Both parties have a public key certificate issued by a CA that they trust.
* When they initiate a communication, they exchange their certificates with each other.
* They verify the signatures on the certificates using the CA’s public key, which they already have or can obtain from a trusted source.
* They check that the certificates are not expired, revoked, or tampered with.
* They extract the public keys from the certificates and use them to encrypt and decrypt messages or to generate and verify digital signatures.
* They confirm that the identities in the certificates match their expectations and intentions.
By using mutual certificate authentication, both parties can be confident that they are communicating with the intended and legitimate party, and that their communication is secure and confidential.
Mutual certificate authentication is often used in conjunction with Transport Layer Security (TLS), a protocol that provides encryption and authentication for network communications. TLS supports both one-way and two-way authentication. In one-way authentication, only the server presents a certificate to the client, and the client verifies it. In two-way authentication, also known as mutual TLS or mTLS, both the server and the client present certificates to each other, and they both verify them. Mutual TLS is commonly used for secure web services, such as APIs or webhooks, that require both parties to authenticate each other.
Virtual private network (VPN), Secure Shell (SSH), and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies that can help to ensure the identities of individuals in a two-way communication are verified, but they are not methods of mutual authentication by themselves. They can use mutual certificate authentication as one of their options, but they can also use other methods, such as username and password, pre-shared keys, or tokens.
Therefore, they are not as specific or accurate as mutual certificate authentication.
References:
* What is mutual authentication? | Two-way authentication1
* How to prove and verify someone’s identity2
* Identity verification – Information Security & Policy3

Q39. An organization must de-identify its data before it is transferred to a third party Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Encrypt the data at rest and in motion

Remove the identifiers during the data transfer

Determine the categories of personal data collected

Ensure logging is turned on for the database

Q40. An organization has initiated a project to enhance privacy protections by improving its information security controls. Which of the following is the MOST useful action to help define the scope of the project?

Review recent audit reports on the internal control environment

Identify databases that contain personal data

Identify databases that do not have encryption in place.

Review proposed privacy rules that govern the processing of personal data

Q41. Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration to ensure control of remote access is aligned to the privacy policy?

Access is logged on the virtual private network (VPN).

Multi-factor authentication is enabled.

Active remote access is monitored.

Access is only granted to authorized users.

Q42. Which of the following is a responsibility of the audit function in helping an organization address privacy compliance requirements?

Approving privacy impact assessments (PIAs)

Validating the privacy framework

Managing privacy notices provided to customers

Establishing employee privacy rights and consent

Q43. From a privacy perspective, it is MOST important to ensure data backups are:

encrypted.

incremental.

differential.

pseudonymized

Q44. Which of the following poses the GREATEST privacy risk for client-side application processing?

Failure of a firewall protecting the company network

An employee loading personal information on a company laptop

A remote employee placing communication software on a company server

A distributed denial of service attack (DDoS) on the company network

Q45. A migration of personal data involving a data source with outdated documentation has been approved by senior management. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Review data flow post migration.

Ensure appropriate data classification.

Engage an external auditor to review the source data.

Check the documentation version history for anomalies.

Q46. Before executive leadership approves a new data privacy policy, it is MOST important to ensure:

a training program is developed.

a privacy committee is established.

a distribution methodology is identified.

a legal review is conducted.

Q47. The BEST way for a multinational organization to ensure the comprehensiveness of its data privacy policy is to perform an annual review of changes to privacy regulations in.

the region where the business IS incorporated.

all jurisdictions where corporate data is processed.

all countries with privacy regulations.

all data sectors in which the business operates

Q48. In which of the following should the data record retention period be defined and established?

Data record model

Data recovery procedures

Data quality standard

Data management plan

Q49. To ensure effective management of an organization’s data privacy policy, senior leadership MUST define:

training and testing requirements for employees handling personal data.

roles and responsibilities of the person with oversights.

metrics and outcomes recommended by external agencies.

the scope and responsibilities of the data owner.

Q50. Which of the following is MOST likely to present a valid use case for keeping a customer’s personal data after contract termination?

For the purpose of medical research

A forthcoming campaign to win back customers

A required retention period due to regulations

Ease of onboarding when the customer returns

Q51. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to complete a privacy impact assessment (PIA)?

To comply with consumer regulatory requirements

To establish privacy breach response procedures

To classify personal data

To understand privacy risks

Q52. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent false positives from data loss prevention (DLP) tools?

Conduct additional discovery scans.

Suppress the alerts generating the false positives.

Evaluate new data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

Re-establish baselines tor configuration rules

Explanation
The best course of action to prevent false positives from data loss prevention (DLP) tools is to re-establish baselines for configuration rules. False positives are events that are triggered by a DLP policy in error, meaning that the policy has mistakenly identified non-sensitive data as sensitive or blocked legitimate actions.
False positives can reduce the effectiveness and efficiency of DLP tools by generating unnecessary alerts, wasting resources, disrupting workflows, and creating user frustration. To avoid false positives, DLP tools need to have accurate and updated configuration rules that define what constitutes sensitive data and what actions are allowed or prohibited. Configuration rules should be based on clear and consistent criteria, such as data classification levels, data sources, data destinations, data formats, data patterns, user roles, user behaviors, etc. Configuration rules should also be regularly reviewed and adjusted to reflect changes in business needs, regulatory requirements, or threat landscape.
Conducting additional discovery scans, suppressing the alerts generating the false positives, or evaluating new DLP tools are not the best ways to prevent false positives from DLP tools. Conducting additional discovery scans may help identify more sensitive data in the network, but it does not address the root cause of false positives, which is the misconfiguration of DLP policies. Suppressing the alerts generating the false positives may reduce the noise and annoyance caused by false positives, but it does not solve the problem of inaccurate or outdated DLP policies. Evaluating new DLP tools may offer some advantages in terms of features or performance, but it does not guarantee that false positives will be eliminated or reduced without proper configuration and tuning of DLP policies.
References: False Positives Handling| Endpoint Data Loss Prevention – ManageEngine …, Scenario-based troubleshooting guide – DLP Issues, Respond to a DLP policy violation in Power BI – Power BI

Q53. Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that a single cryptographic key should be used for only one purpose, such as encryption or authentication?

It eliminates cryptographic key collision.

It minimizes the risk if the cryptographic key is compromised.

It is more practical and efficient to use a single cryptographic key.

Each process can only be supported by its own unique key management process.

Q54. Which of the following is the BEST indication of a highly effective privacy training program?

Members of the workforce understand their roles in protecting data privacy

Recent audits have no findings or recommendations related to data privacy

No privacy incidents have been reported in the last year

HR has made privacy training an annual mandate for the organization_

Q55. A software development organization with remote personnel has implemented a third-party virtualized workspace to allow the teams to collaborate. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

The third-party workspace is hosted in a highly regulated jurisdiction.

Personal data could potentially be exfiltrated through the virtual workspace.

The organization’s products are classified as intellectual property.

There is a lack of privacy awareness and training among remote personnel.

Q56. Which of the following MOST significantly impacts an organization’s ability to respond to data subject access requests?

The organization’s data retention schedule is complex.

Logging of systems and application data is limited.

Third-party service level agreement (SLA) data is not always available.

Availability of application data flow diagrams is limited.