Free CCSK Exam Study Guide for the NEW [Mar-2025] Dumps Test Engine [Q38-Q60]

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Free CCSK Exam Study Guide for the NEW [Mar-2025] Dumps Test Engine

CCSK PDF Dumps Extremely Quick Way Of Preparation

The CCSK certification exam is divided into two parts: the Core exam and the Plus exam. The Core exam covers fundamental cloud security principles and best practices, while the Plus exam goes into greater depth on specific topics such as cloud data security, compliance, and legal issues. CCSK exam is computer-based and can be taken online or in-person at a testing center. CCSK exam is timed and consists of multiple-choice questions, with a passing score of 80%.

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK) is a globally recognized certification that validates the understanding of foundational cloud security principles and best practices. The CCSK certification is designed for IT and security professionals who work with cloud-based technologies and services or are responsible for managing cloud security. Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (v4.0) Exam certification exam covers a broad range of topics, including cloud architecture, infrastructure security, data security, compliance, and legal issues.

Q38. Which of the following is NOT of the essential characterstics as defined by NIST?

Rapid Elastici

Resource Sharing

Resource Pooling

On-demand self service

Q39. For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

Service-level agreements between all parties

Full API access to all required services

Q40. Which of the following type of risk assessment most effectively supports cost-benefit analyses of alternative risk responses or courses of action?

Qualitative Analysis

Quantitative Analysis

Third party Risk Analysis

Outsourced risk analysis

Q41. In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

proxy encryption

data rights management

hypervisor agents

data dispersion

random placement

Q42. Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?

A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.

The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.

Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.

Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.

Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

Q43. Where does the encryption engine and key reside when doing file-level encryption?

On the instance attached to the system

Encryption engine resides on the server and keys on the client side

On the KMS attached to the system

On the client side

Q44. According to CSA Security Guidelines, there are four layers of Logical Model for cloud computing. Which of the following is not one of the layers as defined by Cloud Security Alliance?

Infrasturcture

Metastructure

Applistructure

Softstructure

Q45. Which of the following leverages virtual network topologies to run more. smaller. and more isolated networks without incurring additional hardware costs that historically make such models prohibitive?

VLANS

Micro LANs

Micro segmentation

BitVLANS

Q46. What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

Q47. “Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing transparency for both the provider and consumer of the utilized service. ” Which of the following characteristics defines this?

Broad network access

Resource pooling

Rapid elasticity

Measured service

Q48. What would you call logic/procedures running on a shared database platform as?

Virtual Machine

Container

Platform-based Workload

Serverless Computing

Q49. Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

Application Programming Interface (API)

Q50. Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

Multi-tenancy

Nation-state boundaries

Measured service

Unlimited bandwidth

Hybrid clouds

Q51. Lack of standard data formats and service interfaces can lead to:

Vendor lock out

Vendor lock in

Denial of Service

API Mis-management

Q52. Which one of the following is not one the cloud deployment models?

Public

Private

Joint

Community

Q53. In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

Reduces log analysis requirements

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

Q54. What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

To manage data residency and localization requirements

Q55. Insufficient Identity. Credential and Access Management can lead to which of the following?

Spoofing Identity

Tampering with Data

Information Disclosure

All of the above

Q56. Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

Firewalls

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Q57. All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

False

True

Q58. How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

Q59. A unit of processing, which can be in a virtual machine, a container, or other abstraction and always run somewhere on a processor and consume memory is called:

Host

Device

Workload

Controller

Q60. Cloud Service Provider and Cloud Customer are jointly responsible for ownership of the all risks in shared responsibility model for security across all service models.

True

False