Provide Shared Assessments CTPRP Dumps Updated Mar 17, 2025 With 375 QA's [Q73-Q92] : Testking Free Dumps : http://blog.testkingfree.com

Q73. A healthcare company is evaluating a new cloud service for patient data management. What is essential for them to understand before finalizing their choice?

The cost-effectiveness of the cloud solution

The physical location of the cloud servers

The type of cloud model and security roles involved

Level of customer support provided by the cloud service

Q74. In the context of third-party risk management, what tool is used to gather information about a vendor’s operations and compliance?

Annual financial statements review

Detailed risk analysis report

Self-assessment questionnaire

Customer satisfaction survey results

Q75. A company’s emergency response plan fails to adequately address flood scenarios, despite being located in a flood-prone are a. What is the most critical update needed in their emergency preparedness plan?

Adding general guidelines for all types of natural disasters

Updating the contact information for emergency services

Incorporating specific procedures and resources to handle potential flooding

Increasing the stock of emergency supplies like food and water

Q76. A risk register typically includes the risk’s _______, impact, and likelihood.

Timing

Cost

Description

Source

Q77. Considering multi-factor authentication, which example represents a correct implementation for accessing a corporate network?

Using a password, a received SMS code, and a biometric scan

Using a password and answering a personal security question

Using a biometric scan and a device the user has, like a smart card

Using a security token and a mobile app notification approval

Q78. Scenario: An organization uses an application with extensive remote connectivity options. During a security review, what aspect should be the focal point to understand the potential risks?

Examine the processing speed of the application to ensure efficiency

Evaluate the licensing terms and conditions for any security implications

Review the customer support effectiveness for managing remote access issues

Assess the remote connectivity options to identify potential vulnerabilities

Q79. What is the primary purpose of analyzing responses from a vendor questionnaire?

To identify any gaps, issues, or risks that may pose a threat to the organization or its customers

To assess the vendor’s alignment with the organization’s strategic objectives

To compare the vendor’s performance against industry benchmarks

To finalize the contract terms and conditions with the vendor

Q80. Remote wipe is typically utilized to ensure no company data remains on a _______.

device before it is issued to a new employee

device when changing departments within a company

device after completing a company project

device after it is lost or stolen

Q81. Which activity reflects the concept of vendor management?

Managing service level agreements

Scanning and collecting information from third party web sites

Reviewing and analyzing external audit reports

Receiving and analyzing a vendor’s response to & questionnaire

Q82. Describe a scenario where a vendor’s inadequate patch management leads to a data breach.

Regular security audits miss critical vulnerabilities due to a lack of comprehensive coverage.

A vendor fails to apply a critical security update, allowing hackers to exploit a known vulnerability and access sensitive data.

A security patch conflicts with existing software, causing system instability and data loss.

An outdated firewall allows malware to infiltrate the network, unnoticed during routine checks.

Q83. Which of the following BEST reflects the risk of a ‘shadow IT” function?

“Shadow IT” functions often fail to detect unauthorized use of information assets

“Shadow IT” functions often lack governance and security oversight

inability to prevent “shadow IT’ functions from using unauthorized software solutions

Failure to implement strong security controls because IT is executed remotely

Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, services, or devices that are not authorized, approved, or supported by the official IT department. Shadow IT can pose significant risks to an organization’s data security, compliance, performance, and reputation. One of the main risks of shadow IT is that it often lacks governance and security oversight. This means that the shadow IT functions may not follow the established policies, standards, and best practices for IT management, such as data protection, access control, encryption, backup, patching, auditing, and reporting. This can expose the organization to various threats, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, malware infections, legal liabilities, regulatory fines, and reputational damage. Additionally, shadow IT can create operational inefficiencies, compatibility issues, duplication of efforts, and increased costs for the organization.
According to the web search results from the search_web tool, shadow IT is a common and growing phenomenon in many organizations, especially with the proliferation of cloud-based services and applications. Some of the articles suggest the following best practices for managing and mitigating shadow IT risks123:
* Performing SaaS assessments to proactively detect shadow IT
* Prioritizing user experience (UX) and providing support for integrating tools
* Streamlining user account and identity management
* Using operating systems and devices with which employees are comfortable
* Compromising and collaborating with users to minimize shadow IT risks
* Educating and training users on the security risks and consequences of shadow IT
* Establishing clear policies and guidelines for IT procurement and usage
* Creating a culture of trust and transparency between IT and business units Therefore, the verified answer to the question is B. “Shadow IT” functions often lack governance and security oversight.
References:
* Shadow IT Explained: Risks & Opportunities – BMC Software
* Start reducing your organization’s Shadow IT risk in 3 steps
* What is shadow IT? – Article | SailPoint

Q84. Which factor is least critical in determining the application’s security or functionality?

The aesthetic design of the user interface

The size of the application in terms of disk space

The complexity of the application’s backend infrastructure

The number of software releases

Q85. Which entity traditionally forms the third line of defense in an organization’s risk management structure?

The risk management office

The internal audit function

The executive management team

The compliance department

Q86. Which of the following statements BEST represent the relationship between incident response and incident notification plans?

Cybersecurity incident response programs have the same scope and objectives as privacy incident notification procedures

All privacy and security incidents should be treated alike until analysis is performed to quantify the number of records impacted

Security incident response management is only included in crisis communication for externally reported events

A security incident may become a security breach based upon analysis and trigger the organization’s incident notification or crisis communication process

Incident response and incident notification are two related but distinct processes that organizations should follow when dealing with security incidents. Incident response is the process of identifying, containing, analyzing, eradicating, and recovering from security incidents, while incident notification is the process of communicating the relevant information about the incident to the appropriate internal and external stakeholders, such as senior management, regulators, customers, and media12.
Not all security incidents are security breaches, which are defined as unauthorized access to or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information that could result in harm to the organization or individuals3. A security incident may become a security breach based on the analysis of the impact, scope, and severity of the incident, as well as the applicable legal and regulatory requirements. When a security breach is confirmed or suspected, the organization should trigger its incident notification or crisis communication process, which should include the following elements:
* A clear definition of roles and responsibilities for notification and communication
* A list of internal and external stakeholders who need to be notified and their contact information
* A set of predefined templates and messages for different types of incidents and audiences
* A communication strategy and timeline that aligns with the incident response plan and the business continuity plan
* A feedback mechanism to monitor and measure the effectiveness of the communication and adjust as needed Incident notification and communication are critical for managing the reputation, trust, and compliance of the organization, as well as for mitigating the potential legal, financial, and operational consequences of a security breach. References:
* 1: Incident Response Plan: Frameworks and Steps
* 2: A Guide to Incident Response Plans, Playbooks, and Policy
* 3: What is Incident Response? Plan and Steps
* : Incident Response and Breach Notification
* : Incident Response Communication: Best Practices
* : The Importance of Incident Response Communication

Q87. What type of documentation is crucial for verifying a CSP’s commitment to maintaining security standards?

Annual financial statements and operational budgets.

Monthly performance reviews and user access logs.

Service level agreements, security certifications, and audit attestation reports.

Weekly incident reports and data breach notifications.

Q88. Given the security measures listed, which one would not directly impact the evaluation of remote access risks?

Implementing end-to-end encryption for data in transit to safeguard against interception.

Employing multifactor authentication to verify the identity of users accessing systems remotely.

Application whitelisting, as it focuses on limiting software execution based on pre-established security policies.

Remote desktop protocol (RDP) security, as it directly relates to the safety of remote desktop connections.

Q89. A company discovers that an employee is using a company-issued device for personal business. According to typical end-user device policies, which of the following actions is most justified?

The IT department should isolate the device to prevent any organizational data from being compromised.

The employee may face reprimands or restrictions according to the severity of the misuse.

An investigation is launched to determine if any personal data was collected from the device.

The employee’s device is immediately confiscated and they are suspended from work.

Q90. Why is continuous monitoring of network activity important when a third party has access to an organization’s network?

It helps in reducing the operational costs associated with network management.

It ensures all vendor activities are fully automated and require minimal oversight.

It facilitates better collaboration between the organization and the vendor.

It allows for the detection and mitigation of security threats in real time.

Q91. What does an unrecoverable data loss after a system restore indicate about the Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?

It shows that the incident response was not initiated in a timely manner.

It reflects an adequate level of preparedness and compliance with industry standards.

It suggests the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) metrics were not calculated correctly.

It indicates that the Recovery Point Objective was not met as the data loss exceeded the allowable period.

Q92. When working with third parties, which of the following requirements does not reflect a “Zero Trust” approach to access management?

Utilizing a solution that allows direct access by third parties to the organization’s network

Ensure that access is granted on a per session basis regardless of network location, user, or device

Implement device monitoring, continual inspection and monitoring of logs/traffic

Require that all communication is secured regardless of network location